Common Biblical Verses Used to Nullify Christ's Divinity: Refuted!

The following lines were extracted from exchanges between the members of IglesiaNiCristo (INC-1914 founded by Mr. Felix Manalo) under the account name (MIZRACH & TruthshallSetYouFree) and me. Because of limited space author was decided to extract the exchanges and reduce for proper presentation of the main argument (Entire exchanges can be read at: My Catholic Point: Mother Mary’s Title & Jesus Christ and His Divinity: Biblical Reference under comment/reply portion)

MIZRACH posted in RED TruthShallSetYouFree posted in BLUE

COMMON BIBLICAL VERSES USED TO NULLIFY CHRIST DIVINITY: REFUTED!

By c.pio

1Corinthians 8:5-6

⁵"For although there may be so-called gods in heaven or on earth—as indeed there are many ‘gods’ and many ‘lords’ ⁶"Yet to us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things, and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist."

you are quoting I Corinthians 8:6; Now,..who is the one and only true God reffered to by Apostle Paul? ...Isn't the FATHER? Jesus is not the FATHER..THEREFORE, he is not the one and only true
God taught by the Apostles. Jesus himself..declared that the FATHER alone is the one true GOD,...read John 17:3,1....

Answer1:

Because of the word “ONE GOD” refers to THE FATHER, they assume that Apostle Paul diminished the DIVINITY of JESUS CHRIST. THAT IS WRONG.

What Apostle Paul did here is PRESENTING TWO DIFFERENT “PERSONS”; TWO SEPARATE COMPLETE INDIVIDUAL PERSON WITH THEIR OWN UNIQUE IDENTITIES. AND TO SHOW THAT ALTHOUGH THESE TWO WITH ITS OWN UNIQUE IDENTITY, STILL BOTH EQUAL.

One God: from whom are all things and for whom we exist (refers to the FATHER)
One Lord : through whom are all things and through whom we exist (refers to the JESUS CHRIST)

ONE GOD is unique person to ONE LORD but BOTH ARE EQUAL. The ONE LORD is CO-EQUAL WITH ONE GOD AND THIS ONE GOD IS CO-ETERNAL WITH ONE LORD.(VICEVERSA)

Because "I and my Father are ONE." [John 10:30]

verse 5: gods and lords refers to Man-MADE TITLES for Human Persons .
verse 6: One God and One Lord refers for Divine Persons.

Answer2:

If we follow the premise that “ONE GOD” is exclusive and ONLY FOR “THE FATHER”, THEN OF COURSE THE “ONE LORD” is exclusive and ONLY FOR “JESUS CHRIST” Right?

Then how they will explain these verses?

“I am the LORD: that is my name: and my glory will I not give to another...” Isaiah 42:8
“I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he.” [Isaiah 41:4]

These verses by Prophet Isaiah were referring to THE FATHER, right? Don’t tell me that the “LORD” here is address to Christ because his logic says that there is “ONE LORD” JESUS CHRIST?

How about this, how they will explain this verse?

"For unto us A CHILD IS BORN, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, THE MIGHTY GOD, THE EVERLASTING FATHER, The Prince of Peace." [Isaiah 9:6]

Again, this is the prophesy made by Prophet Isaiah and referring to JESUS CHRIST’s birth, right? Don’t tell me that the “GOD” here is address to the Father because his logic, again says there is “ONE GOD” THE FATHER?

THUS, even though, Paul uses the word “ONE GOD the FATHER” this will not diminish JESUS CHRIST as CO-EQUAL AND CO-ETERNAL.

Both titles “LORD” and “GOD” are uses interchangeably that shows that these are equal. So Apostle Paul says, although there are many gods (like they did to Mr.Felix treated him as god) and many lords (like they did to Mr. Erano, - Felix's successor and his own son) there is only ONE GOD AND ONE LORD both CO-EQUAL AND CO-ETERNAL. 

John 17:3

³"And this is eternal life, that they know You the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent."

Your Priests studied theology for so many years and yet, they couldn't explain that when Jesus prayed to God: "Now this is eternal life: that they know YOU, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent" (John 17:3)

Answer1:

Take a closer look at the word “ONLY”… the word “ONLY” modify the word “GOD” and not the word “FATHER”.[YOU]

(a) “that they know you the [ONLY] TRUE GOD”  : the word “ONLY” modify the word “GOD” 

(b) “that they know [ONLY] YOU THE TRUE GOD”: the word “ONLY” modify the word “YOU”

See the difference? Example:

One female TV reporter states that “he is the only true human”.

Does it mean that the TV Reporter is not a HUMAN because she wrote that “he is the only true human”? Of course not, saying “ONLY” is NOT necessarily excluding other Persons of that being from that description. SO, ALTHOUGH CHRIST SAYS THE WORD “ONLY” THIS DOES’NT MEAN THAT HE DECLARED THAT HE IS NOT GOD.

What about the word “TRUE”? Because there are many false “gods” like they did, again to sinful Felix.THERE IS ONE GOD: TRUE GOD THE FATHER WHO IS CO-EQUAL/CO-ETERNAL WITH ONE LORD JESUS CHRIST.[1Cor8:6]

Answer2:

AND once you read this passage don't stop until you reach [John 17:5] wherein if we continue to read up to this verse [5]:  

"And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began."

Christ is with his Father with glory he had before the world began. Christ was talking of Eternity [CO-ETERNAL] as he had with the Father before his incarnation or before the 'WORD BECOME FLESH AND DWELT AMONG US'. As we know, only GOD is Eternal [Deut. 33:27], so if Christ is Eternal obviously he is GOD.

Answer3:

Since we know that the word “ONLY” modify the word “TRUE GOD” (refer to (a)); then Jesus Christ is reminding us of THE JEWISH “SHEMA”.

Sh'ma Yis'ra'eil Adonai Eloheinu Adonai echad.

“Hear, O Israel! The LORD is our God, the LORD is one! [Deuteronomy 6:4]

LORD = ADONAI (Plural Form of Adoni (Master))

GOD  = ELOHIM (Plural Form of El (God))

ONE  = ECHAD (ONE that demonstrates compound unity) NOT ‘YACHID’ that demonstrate singularity

Sample of ONE (ECHAD)

For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and they will become one [echad] flesh. (Genesis 2:24)

Now the whole earth used the same [echad] language and the same [echad] words. (Genesis 11:1)

Sample of GOD (ELOHIM (PLURAL))

"I am the LORD your God [Elohim], who brought you out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of slavery. "You shall have no other gods [Elohim] before Me. (Exodus 20:2-3)

“Hear, O Israel! The ADONAI (plural) is our ELOHIM (plural), the ADONAI (plural) is ECHAD (‘ONE’)

that demonstrates compound unity like “they are one [echad] people”[Gen.11:6]) IT DID NOT MENTION yachid

SO, JESUS IS CONFIRMING THE “TRINITARIAN MONOTHEISM” or the existence of one God in three persons.

ONE GOD: THREE separate complete and individual Persons with their own individual, unique identities. CO-EQUAL AND CO-ETERNAL.

“For there are three who bear witness in heaven: the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit; AND THESE THREE ARE ONE.” (1 John 5:7)

‘Baptizing them in the NAME of the FATHER, SON,AND HOLY SPIRIT (Matthew 28:19)

“I and my Father are ONE." (John 10:30) ONE IN NATURE.

From [ECHAD]unity/compound unity of ONE, the “ONLY TRUE GOD” Jesus Christ whom you have sent." For the Divine Economy.

John 14:28

²⁸“If you loved Me, you would have rejoiced, because I go to the Father; for the Father is greater than I'"

well that is your wrong interpretation of the Bible. Jesus is not CO-EQUAL WITH the FATHER..John 14:28, "..for my FATHER is GREATER than I.." Jesus told to the Apostles that His FATHER,(the true GOD) is greater(not equal) than HIM. whom should we believe? YOU or JESUS CHRIST? ofcourse!...you already know the answer!

Answer1:

Is their “INC Minister” greater than his “Member”?
Is your “Father” greater than “You”?

Both answers are YES but consider these two questions below:

Is their “INC Minister” greater than his “Member” as Human being?
Is your “Father” greater than “You” as Human being?

We see that the word “GREATER” is considered a positional word with emphasis POSITION in relationship to others.

Compare this in relationship with “Marriage”. Biblically, a husband is greater in position and authority than his wife. But, he is no different in nature and he is not better than she. They share the same nature, being human.

John 14:28: "…for my FATHER is GREATER than I.." : Yes, the Father is greater than the Son in terms of HIERARCHICAL POSITION but Father is not greater than Son in terms of “NATURE” OR THEIR BEING. Jesus said the Father was greater than He not because Jesus is not God

Answer2:

FATHER IS GREATER THAN HIM (JESUS CHRIST) refers to the Son’s role in the economy of redemption. He came to fulfill the Father’s will in redeeming us and to reveal the Father to us, thus serving the Father. Hence, the Father holds a position in some sense superior to his. Thus the Son might be said to be inferior to the Father in the role he plays, but not in his essential nature – catholic.com

If in John 17:3 he reminds us of TRIUNE GOD; here John 14:28 reminds us of DIVINE ECONOMY

“For God so love the world he gave his only begotten son” [John 3:16]

"He made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him." [2 Cor. 5:21]

“He himself bore our sins in his body on the cross” [1 Peter 2:24]

“who, though he was in the form of GOD, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped,, but made himself nothing, TAKING THE FORM OF A SERVANT, BEING BORN IN THE LIKENESS OF MEN”.[ Philippians 2:6-7]

consider this TAKING THE FORM OF A SERVANT, BEING BORN IN THE LIKENESS OF MEN.

".. made for a little while lower than the angels . ." [Heb. 2:9]

Jesus is not using a word “GREATER” which means the Father is better or superior to Him in quality of nature, but rather larger in degree of authority WHEN HE TOOK THE FORM OF A SERVANT AND BORN IN THE LIKENESS OF MEN AND A LITTLE LOWER THAN THE ANGELS. [or was meant to teach that He was equal to the Father in Nature but Subordinated to the Father for the Mission]

Again, JESUS CHRIST SAID "I and my Father are ONE.".[John 10:30] ONE IN “NATURE” BOTH DIVINE. THE “ONE LORD” JESUS CHRIST IS CO-EQUAL AND CO-ETERNAL WITH “ONE GOD” THE FATHER. [1Corinthians 8:6]

MATTHEW 27:46

⁴⁶“And about the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying, "Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani?" "My God, My God, why hast Thou forsaken Me?"

Answer1:

(I add these one although we, Mizrach/TruthShallSetYouFree and I did not tackle this verse, but I think they might used this against Christ divinity.)

Before concluding that this Cult is correct, read the preceding chapters before Matthew 27:45-46.

In preceding Chapter a time before his horrific crucifixion – when he was arrested in the garden, Jesus rejects violent resistance, we can read the word of Him saying “how then would the SCRIPTURES BE FULFILLED, which say it must happen in this way?” [Matthew 26:54].

So if Christ cried out "My God, My God, why hast Thou forsaken Me?" He was not giving a definitive teaching on his “NATURE” or “BEING” rather HE WANTED TO DRAW ATTENTION to WHAT IS WRITTEN IN THE SCRIPTURES [Mt. 26:54] and the fact that He is now fulfilling it on the Cross.

PSALM 22 (Old Testament)	GOSPELS (New Testament)
1 My God, my God, why have you forsaken me? Why are you so far from helping me, from the words of my groaning?	“And about the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying, "Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani?" ["My God, My God, why hast Thou forsaken Me?"] Mt 27:46
7 “All who see me mock me...they shake their heads.”	“Those who passed by derided him, shaking their heads ...” Mk 15:29 / Mt. 27:39
16 For dogs are all around me; a company of evildoers encircles me. My hands and feet have shriveled;	“After they had nailed him to the cross” Mt.27:35a
17 I can count all my bones. They stare and gloat over me;	“For these things happened so that the scripture would be fulfilled, “Not a bone of his will be broken.” Jn.19:36
18 they divide my clothes among themselves, and for my clothing they cast lots.	“the soldiers gambled for his clothes by throwing dice” Mt.27:35b

But it will not end here; if we read Psalm 22, we can notice the “Shifting”, verses 1-21 describes SUFFERING AND LAMENT while verse 22-31 a big shift happened from suffering/lament turning into PRAISE.

Why? “Destroy this temple, and I will raise it again in three days.” [John 2:19] THE RESURRECTION!

Psalm 22:29-31

²⁹ To him, indeed, shall all who sleep in the earth bow down; before him shall bow all who go down to the dust, and I shall live for him.

³⁰ Posterity will serve him; future generations will be told about the Lord,

³¹ and proclaim his deliverance to a people yet unborn, saying that he has done it.

ROMANS 1:3-4 

Concerning His Son Jesus Christ our Lord, who was born of the seed of David according to the flesh, and declared to be the Son of God with power according to the Spirit of holiness by his resurrection from the dead, Jesus Christ our Lord

[Adoptionism Heresy]: Jesus Christ is not Eternal because he is born of the [Seed] of Man (David) and [Declared] to be the Son of God by his resurrection from the dead.

 

This is one of IglesiaNiManalo INCorporated argument; they believe Christ became the [Son of God] only after his resurrection from the dead. Well, Apostle Paul himself will not agree on how they interpret his letter.

Answer:

1. [Declared] to be the Son of God by his resurrection from the dead. 

Answer1: [Matthew 16:15] Who do you say I am? Simon Peter answered, You are the Messiah, the Son of the living God.

This is a good example, He was already [Declared] the ‘Son of God’ knowing that this event happened before he died and resurrected from the dead.

2. he is born of the [Seed] of Man (David)

Answer2: "I tell you the truth, before Abraham was even born, I Am!" [John 8:58]

According to this verse Christ existed before Abraham was even born, and Abraham came to earth before David, right? Another verse:

Jesus Christ says [John 16:28] I came from the Father and have come into the world, and now I am leaving the world and going to the Father.

Very clear, the text ‘[Seed] of David’ says that he was the son of David “in the context of” the human flesh. He was born, and this physical birth did not mark the beginning of his existence but the beginning of his physical life on earth. He entered the race through the line of David so that he would become the promised Davidic king.

 JOHN 3:16  

"For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son

Only [Begotten] Son

Answer: BEGOTTEN: NOT MADE, NOT CREATED BUT BEGET

The word ‘MAKE’ one can make a house, computer, cellphones or any other products. The word ‘CREATE’ can have the same objects, but usually has a higher meaning – a masterpiece like unique signature designed house, signature brand/model of computer or cellphones. In other words ‘creations’ bear the imprint of the creator, but do not share nature of the creator. But the word “BEGET” is different. You can only beget a child that has the same nature as you have--a son or a daughter. There is nothing else you can beget [unless you were speaking very figuratively]. Your son or your daughter will inherit his or her nature from you. [Nature: a Human Person]

This is why Apostle John says, Jesus was “begotten” not “Made or Created” he is of one substance [Nature] with the Father the God.

Conclusion: The word ‘Begotten’ is used to describe his ‘Nature’ and not his ‘Existence’. Therefore to call Jesus Christ ‘the only begotten Son’ of his Father [a God]; means that he is fully divine and eternal. He is God the Son.

Jesus Christ is Not most God-like … He was and is God.

Whom should we believe? Man-made doctrine of sinful Felix or JESUS CHRIST? Of course!... we already know the answer!

By the way, these INManalo INCorporated Cult members (Mizrach/TruthShallSetYouFree) stop posting replies like the devil went away [Matthew 4:11]when cannot stand and defend their Man-made doctrine.

...but be ready they were like Vipers with split tongue ready to attack anytime